Don't get it?
Two countries go to war. The war ends and one country, which was not defeated on the field of battle is supposed to pay for killing people on the other side? Did anyone pay the other for using poison gas in WWI? Did we pay individuals for nuking Japan? Did anyone ever pay "victims" for sinking ships using submarines? (Subs are outlawed by the Geneva convention.) For once, I think a federal judge make a logical decision.
Stay healthy,
Andy
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